I am a 73 year old semi-retired college professor. After years of smoking and now with COPD I now need supplental oxygen for mobility. I recently purchased a mobility scooter. I was quoted two prices. If medicare was going to pay, the cost would be $1900, if I paid cash for the scooter it would be $1100. Why shouldn't the cost be the same regardless of who is paying. If the price via medicare was $1100 wouldn't that save the government money, thereby reducing medical costs. I am sure this kind of thing is replicated over and over again with other medical supplies and medications.

For instance, I use a medication called Combivent with a list price of around $180 per inhaler if it was bought outright. I get a 6 week supply (3 inhalers) for a $35 co-pay. I discovered I could purchase these inhalers from a pharmacy in the UK with each unit costing $20. I bought them and showed them to my pulmonary doctor. He informed me that the UK inhalers are identical to the inhalers I get from the local pharmacy and that I could use them without concern. The UK inhalers and the ones from the local pharmacy are both made by Boehringer Ingelheim. Something is wrong here. Why do they cost so much in the US? If we paid the UK price would that lower the cost for medicare or my private insurance? I believe this sort of thing is replicated with most medications.

As part of health care reform, wouldn't it make sense to have medicare or private insurance and private pharmaceutical companies all revise pricing?

David N Perkins